This note is to concern a recent result by David G. Costa [here]. Here the statement
Theorem 1.1. For alland
one has
where. In addition, if
, then
where the constantis sharp.
Here’s the proof.
Proof. For all
and
one has, for all
, the following
Expanding the above yields
If we denote the last integral by
and write it as
an integration by parts gives
Keep in mind that
A second integration by parts on the first integral above yields
so that
becomes
Therefore, we have
for any
where
is given above and
This is equivalent to
, i.e.
This completes the first inequality. On the other hand, since
we know that
provided
. This proves the second inequality.
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